Indian Polity and Constitution: Complete Notes for UPSC, APSC & All Competitive Exams
Indian Polity and Constitution is one of the most essential subjects for students preparing for competitive examinations such as UPSC, APSC, SSC, and State Civil Services. It provides a comprehensive understanding of the political framework of India, the structure of government, and the functioning of various constitutional bodies. The subject covers topics such as the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, Fundamental Duties, Union and State Governments, the Parliament, the Judiciary, and the Election Commission.
The Constitution of India, adopted on 26th January 1950, is the supreme law of the land. It lays down the framework that defines the political principles, establishes the structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions, and sets out the fundamental rights and duties of citizens. Indian Polity helps learners understand the principles of democracy, federalism, secularism, and social justice that form the core of the Indian Constitution.
This subject not only builds awareness about civic responsibilities but also enhances analytical skills and critical thinking regarding governance and public policies. Whether you are a civil services aspirant, a college student, or a general reader interested in the Indian democratic system, Indian Polity and Constitution serves as a vital foundation for understanding how India functions as the world’s largest democracy.
1. With reference to United Nations, the decision that major countries should have veto power, was taken at which of the following conferences?
(A) Teheran conference
(B) Dumbarton oaks
(C) Yalta Conference
(D) Moscow Conference
Correct Answer: (B) Dumbarton oaks
Answer Explanation:
The decision that major countries should have veto power was taken at Dumbarton oaks.
2. With reference to the scheduled of the Indian constitution, which of the following is / are correct matches?
- Second Schedule – Emoluments of President, Vice President etc.
- Third Schedule – Allocation of Seats in Rajya Sabha
- Fourth Schedule – Various forms of oaths by holders of constitutional office
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
(A) Only 1 & 2
(B) Only 2 & 3
(C) Only 1
(D) 1, 2 & 3
Correct Answer: (C) Only 1
Answer Explanation:Second Schedule
Second schedule lists the emoluments for holders of constitutional offices such as salaries of President, Vice President, Ministers, Judges and Comptroller and Auditor-General of India etc.
Third Schedule
This schedule lists the various forms of oath for holders of various constitutional offices.
Fourth Schedule
Fourth schedule enumerates the allocation of Rajya Sabha seats to States or Union Territories.
3. How many presidents of India so far were elected unopposed?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Correct Answer: (B) Two
Answer Explanation:Apart from N Sanjiva Reddy First President Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected unopposed for the period 1950 to 1952; but he faced opposition in further elections.
4. The constitutional position of President of India is most closely similar to __:
(A) British Monarch
(B) US President
(C) Russian President
(D) British Prime Minister
Correct Answer: (A) British Monarch
Answer Explanation:Constitutional position of Indian President is closely similar to British Monarch.
5. For how long, A joint sitting of both the houses of Parliament may be convened to consider a bill which was passed by one house and pending in another house?
(A) 3 Months
(B) 6 Months
(C) 9 Months
(D) 12 Months
Correct Answer: (B) 6 Months
6. What is the maximum size & Minimum size of a Vidhan Sabha in the Indian state, as outlined in the Constitution of India?
(A) 500,50
(B) 400,40
(C) 500,60
(D) 450,50
Correct Answer: (C) 500,60
Answer Explanation:
In any state assembly, maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60. It means that its strength varies from 60 to 500 depending on the population size of the state. However, in case of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa, the minimum number is fixed at 30 and in the case of Mizoram and Nagaland, it is 40 and 46 respectively
7. In which among the following cases, the Supreme Court of India propounded the theory of basic structure of the Constitution?
(A) Gopalan vs. State of Madras
(B) Golak Nath
(C) Keshvanand Bharati Case
(D) Minerva Mills
Correct Answer: (C) Keshvanand Bharati Case
8. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the States are submitted to which among the following?
(A) The President
(B) The Governor
(C) The Parliament
(D) The Chief Minister
Correct Answer: (B) The Governor
Answer Explanation:
Article 151. Audit Reports :- (1) The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament. (2) The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the Governor of the State, who shall cause them to be laid before the Legislature of the State.
9. Which among the following is the first state in India to make voting compulsory?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharastra
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: (A) Gujarat
10. In which year, First Public Service Commission was set up in India?
(A) 1922
(B) 1924
(C) 1926
(D) 1928
Correct Answer: (C) 1926
11. The law created by a legislature is called ?
(A) Money Bill
(B) Legislation or statutory law
(C) Budget
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Legislation or statutory law
12. Which among the following amendments added the Fundamental Duties as per recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh Committee?
(A) 38th
(B) 40th
(C) 42nd
(D) 44th
Correct Answer: (C) 42nd
Answer Explanation:
Sardar Swaran Singh committee was constituted by Indira Gandhi soon after emergency was imposed in the country. The objective of this committee was to study the question of amending the constitution in the light of past experiences and recommend the amendments. The 42nd amendment act which is also called “Mini Constitution” which amended many articles and even the Preamble was a result of the recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh Committee. The 10 fundamental duties were also added as per the recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh Committee.
13. An Individual Minister can be removed by ______?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Council of Ministers
(C) Parliament
(D) President
Correct Answer: (D) President
14. A Rajya Sabha member is elected for a term which extends _____?
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 6 years
Correct Answer: (D) 6 years
Answer Explanation:
Rajya Sabha has an indefinite term and not subject to dissolution (Article 83.1). The term of an Individual Rajya Sabha member is 6 years and one third of its members retire every two years, in accordance with the rules as prescribed by the parliament of India.
15. New All India services can be initiated in India only if the following makes a recommendation?
(A) President
(B) Rajya sabha
(C) Lok sabha
(D) Council of ministers
Correct Answer: (B) Rajya sabha
Answer Explanation:
As per the Constitution of India, a new All India service can be instituted with only on the initiative of Rajya Sabha. Article 312 of the constitution says
“Notwithstanding anything in [Chapter VI of Part VI or Part XI], if the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest so to do, Parliament may by law provide for the creation of one or more all India services [(including an all-India judicial service)] common to the Union and the States, and, subject to the other provisions of this Chapter, regulate the recruitment, and the conditions of service of persons appointed, to any such service.”
16. Sikkim became a new state in the Union by the __________Amendment act
(A) 32nd, 1974
(B) 35th, 1975
(C) 36th, 1975
(D) 37th, 1978
Correct Answer: (C) 36th, 1975
Answer Explanation:
Sikkim became a state of India via the Thirty-sixth Amendment Act, 1975 on 26th April, 1975. The Sikkim State day is observed on 16th May of every year because this was the day when the first Chief Minister of Sikkim assumed office.
17. An appeal can be made in the Supreme Court of India in __________?
(A) Civil & Criminal Matters
(B) Criminal & Constitutional Matters
(C) Civil , Criminal & Constitutional Matters
(D) Constitutional and Criminal Matters
Correct Answer: (C) Civil , Criminal & Constitutional Matters
18. What was the original requirement of ”Magna carta” ?
(A) To bring the powers of King under law
(B) To make the power of the kings beyond Law
(C) To limit the power of Barons
(D) None of them
Correct Answer: (A) To bring the powers of King under law
19. Which of the following posts is not mentioned in Constitution?
(A) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) Attorney General
(D) Solicitor General
Correct Answer: (D) Solicitor General
20. By which among the following ways, the Constitution Assembly generally arrived at decisions on various provisions of the Constitution?
(A) Simple Majority
(B) Two Third Majority
(C) Consensus
(D) Casting Vote
Correct Answer: (C) Consensus
21. In which year Dogri language was included in the eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution?
(A) 2001
(B) 2002
(C) 2003
(D) 2004
Correct Answer: (D) 2004
Answer Explanation:
Via the 92nd Constitutional amendment 2003, 4 new languages – Bodo, Maithili, Dogri, and Santali – were added to the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
22. Which among the following articles of Indian Constitution gives the right to the Attorney General of India to speak in Houses of Parliament or their committee?
(A) Article 76
(B) Article 86
(C) Article 96
(D) Article 106
Correct Answer: (A) Article 76
23. In which year, first Official Language Commission was constituted?
(A) 1952
(B) 1955
(C) 1958
(D) 1959
Correct Answer: (B) 1955
Answer Explanation:
The first official language commission was appointed in 1955 with B.G. Kher as chairman and it submitted its report in 1956 which was presented to parliament in 1957 and examined by a joint parliamentary committee.
24. The Vice President is elected by an electoral college comprising votes of __________?
(A) Only members of Parliament
(B) Members of Parliament & members of Legislative Assemblies
(C) Members of Parliament, Members of Legislative assemblies and Members of legislative councils
(D) Members of Rajya Sabha only
Correct Answer: (A) Only members of Parliament
Answer Explanation:
Like Presidential election, election of vice president is held via system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote {indirect election}. However, Vice President is elected by Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha MPs. The MLAs or MLCs have no role to play here. This sounds to be an anomaly but it is justified by giving logic that Vice President works as president of the whole country in rare occasions when President is not available. In normal circumstances, his work is to preside the Rajya Sabha.
25. The preamble of Constitution of India is ________?
(A) A part of constitution
(B) Not a part of constitution
(C) is an annexure to constitution
(D) A schedule of the Constitution
Correct Answer: (A) A part of constitution
26. The Parliament of India is consisted of _______:
(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha & President
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, President & Prime Minister
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Council of Ministers
Correct Answer: (B) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha & President
Answer Explanation:
India has a bicameral parliament made of President, Rajya Sabha (Upper House / Council of States) and Lok Sabha (Lower House / House of People). While Rajya Sabha represents states and union territories, Lok Sabha represents the people of India.
27. Which among the following is true regarding the resignation of the speaker and deputy speaker?
(A) The Speaker may resign by writing to Deputy Speaker but Deputy Speaker may not resign by writing to Speaker
(B) The Deputy Speaker may resign by writing to Speaker but Speaker may not resign by writing to Deputy Speaker
(C) The Deputy Speaker and Speaker may resign by writing to each other
(D) The Deputy Speaker and Speaker may resign by writing President
Correct Answer: (C) The Deputy Speaker and Speaker may resign by writing to each other
28. If a member absents himself from parliament for ____days without permission of the house, his / her seat may be declared vacant?
(A) 60 days
(B) 90 days
(C) 100 days
(D) 180 days
Correct Answer: (A) 60 days
29. Gandhi may die, but Gandhism will remain forever” In which session of Indian National Congress Gandhi ji said this?
(A) Lucknow 1916
(B) Nagpur 1921
(C) Karachi 1931
(D) Ramgarh 1940
Correct Answer: (C) Karachi 1931
30. Lucknow pact was signed between Indian National Congress and _____________ in 1916?
(A) Muslim League
(B) Lord Irwin
(C) Ghadar party
(D) HRSA
Correct Answer: (A) Muslim League
31. Part IV A of our constitution is related to ____?
(A) Citizenship
(B) Fundamental rights
(C) Fundamental duities
(D) DPSP
Correct Answer: (C) Fundamental duities
Answer Explanation:
Part-II: Citizenship
Part-III: Fundamental rightsPart-IV: DPSP
Part-IV A- Fundamental duities
32. Which among the following are included in nagar panchayat?
(A) Notified Area Committee only
(B) Town Area Committee only
(C) Both Notified Area Committee & Town Area Committee
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Both Notified Area Committee & Town Area Committee
33. Which of the following funds in charged for the salary and other allowances of the Judges of the High Courts?
(A) Consolidated fund of India
(B) Consolidated fund of state
(C) both of them in 1:1 ratio
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Consolidated fund of state
34. No amount from the “Consolidated Fund of India” can be withdrawn without the authorization from _________?
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) CAG
(D) Prime minister
Correct Answer: (A) Parliament
35. The writ of “Habeas Corpus” can be issued in which of the following events ?
(A) to seek relief from the unlawful detention of him or herself
(B) to seek refund of excess taxes
(C) to seek relief from the violation of freedom to speak
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) to seek relief from the unlawful detention of him or herself
Answer Explanation:
Habeas Corpus literally means ‘to have the body of’. Via this writ, the court can cause any person who has been detained or imprisoned to be physically brought before the court. The court then examines the reason of his detention and if there is no legal justification of his detention, he can be set free. Such a writ can be issued in following example cases:
- When the person is detained and not produced before the magistrate within 24 hours
- When the person is arrested without any violation of a law.
- When a person is arrested under a law which is unconstitutional
- When detention is done to harm the person or is mala fide.
Thus, Habeas corpus writ is called bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention. A general rule of filing the petition is that a person whose right has been infringed must file a petition. But Habeas corpus is an exception and anybody on behalf of the detainee can file a petition. Habeas corpus writ is applicable to preventive detention also. This writ can be issued against both public authorities as well as individuals.
36. Which of the following brings Out The – Citizens Guide to Fight Corruption ?
(A) Transparency International
(B) Central Vigilance Commission
(C) Consumer Co-operative Societies
(D) Anti-corruption Bureau
Correct Answer: (B) Central Vigilance Commission
37. Which part of the Indian constitution deals with Trade, Commerce and Inter Course within the territories of India?
(A) Part XII
(B) Part XIII
(C) Part XIV
(D) Part XV
Correct Answer: (B) Part XIII
Answer Explanation:
Part XIII Trade, Commerce And Intercourse Within The Territory Of India Art.( 301-307 )
38. In a Parliamentary system, which of the following sentences is correct?
(A) Executive is responsible to the Legislature
(B) Legislature is responsible to the Executive
(C) Executive is responsible to the people
(D) Executive is responsible to the judicary
Correct Answer: (A) Executive is responsible to the Legislature
39. The constitution of India was ordained by which of the following?
(A) British Government
(B) Government of India
(C) The people of India through their representatives in the Constituent assembly
(D) Viceroy of India
Correct Answer: (C) The people of India through their representatives in the Constituent assembly
40. The Citizenship Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in which year?
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1955
(D) 1947
Correct Answer: (C) 1955
41. Who among the following can be appointed as ad hoc judges of the Supreme Court?
(A) Only Retired Judges of Supreme Court
(B) Only those qualified for appointed as judge of Supreme Court
(C) Only Retired Judges of High Courts
(D) District judges
Correct Answer: (B) Only those qualified for appointed as judge of Supreme Court
Answer Explanation:
If there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president.
42. The writ of prohibition issued by the Supreme Court or High court is issued against?
(A) Administrative and judicial authorities
(B) Only Administrative authorities
(C) Judicial or quasi judicial authorities
(D) Govt and administrative authorities
Correct Answer: (C) Judicial or quasi judicial authorities
43. As amended in January 2009, what is paid salary of the Chief Justice of India?
(A) Rs. 70,000
(B) Rs. 100, 000
(C) Rs. 80,000
(D) Rs. 120,000
Correct Answer: (B) Rs. 100, 000
44. The interpretation of the Constitution falls within the domain of the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court. At least how many members are required for this bench?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
Correct Answer: (C) 5
45. Supreme Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such courts including the power to punish for contempt of itself. Which article says this?
(A) Article 126
(B) Article 128
(C) Article 129
(D) Article 131
Correct Answer: (C) Article 129
46. If strength of a house is 520 , 20 members are abstaining and a bill is voted in favor by 251 members, this will be an example of ___?
(A) Bill passed by simple majority
(B) Bill passed by effective majority
(C) Bill passed by absolute majority
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Bill passed by simple majority
47. Who among the following is the first woman in India to head an State election commission?
(A) Neela Satyanarayana
(B) Sudha Pillai
(C) Rita Sinha
(D) Leena Mehendale
Correct Answer: (A) Neela Satyanarayana
48. The establishment of a finance commission was provided by the Indian constitution by the President within a period of ______ of commencement of the constitution?
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 10 years
Correct Answer: (A) 2 years
49. In which year Uttranchal was renamed as Uttarakhand?
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
Correct Answer: (D) 2007
50. Who among the following presidents of India was the first Chief Minister of Modern states in India?
(A) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(B) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Dr. BD Jatti
Correct Answer: (B) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
Answer Explanation:
Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy was the first Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh when the state was formed in 1956
51. Which among the following amendments provided for the deletion of article 314 inclusion of a new article 312 A which confers powers on Parliament to vary or revoke by law the conditions of Civil Services ?
(A) Twenty-eighth Amendment Act, 1972
(B) Twenty-fourth Amendment Act, 1971
(C) Twenty-ninth Amendment Act, 1972
(D) Twenty-sixth Amendment Act, 1971
Correct Answer: (A) Twenty-eighth Amendment Act, 1972
52. Which article deals with the procedure for amendment of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 360
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 368
Correct Answer: (D) Article 368
53. The power of Judicial review in India lies with the __?
(A) Supreme Court only
(B) High court and Supreme Court
(C) High Court only
(D) Lower courts only
Correct Answer: (A) Supreme Court only
54. Which among the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Schedule Two – Salaries and Allowances
(B) Schedule Five – Scheduled Areas
(C) Schedule Six – Tribal Areas of Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram
(D) Schedule Ten – panchayats
Correct Answer: (D) Schedule Ten – panchayats
Answer Explanation:
Schedule Ten comprises anti-defection provisions for Members of Parliament and Members of the State Legislatures.
55. In which year maximum number of languages were added to the Eighth Schedule ?
(A) 1967
(B) 1982
(C) 1997
(D) 2003
Correct Answer: (D) 2003
Answer Explanation:
1967 (Sindhi), 1992 (Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali), 2003 (Bodo, Maithili, Santhali & Dogri)
56. Which among the following statement is correct ?
(A) Right to property is a fundamental right and right to privacy is a implied right
(B) Right to property is a legal right and right to privacy is a fundamental right
(C) Right to property is a implied right while right to privacy is a legal right
(D) Right to property is a Legal right while right to privacy is a implied right
Correct Answer: (D) Right to property is a Legal right while right to privacy is a implied right
Answer Explanation:
Schedule Ten comprises anti-defection provisions for Members of Parliament and Members of the State Legislatures.
57. Which among the following statements is not correct ?
(A) All money bills originate in Lok Sabha Only
(B) Resolution of removal of Vice President can originate in Rajya Sabha Only
(C) Resolution to create new all India services can be initiated in Lok Sabha Only
(D) No confidence motion against council of Ministers is exclusive power of Lok Sabha
Correct Answer: (C) Resolution to create new all India services can be initiated in Lok Sabha Only
58. In the Rajya Sabha the states have been provided representation on which of the following basis?
(A) Area
(B) Population
(C) Number of Lok Sabha Constituencies
(D) Number of Legislative Assemblies
Correct Answer: (B) Population
59. Power to dissolve Lok Sabha is vested with ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Council of Ministers
(C) President
(D) Lok Sabha Speaker
Correct Answer: (C) President
60. The power to create of abolish legislative council in states is vested with which among the following?
(A) Council of State Ministers
(B) Governor of the state
(C) Legislative assembly of the state
(D) President of India
Correct Answer: (C) Legislative assembly of the state
Answer Explanation:
Legislative assembly of the state make recommendations and parliament makes necessary laws for this
61. Till which year the judges of the Supreme Court were appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India?
(A) 1990
(B) 1991
(C) 1992
(D) 1993
Correct Answer: (D) 1993
62. Which among the following is a correct combination of members in Joint Committee on Office of Profit ?
(A) 15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha =Total 25 members
(B) 15 from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha = Total 30 members
(C) 20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha = Total 30 members
(D) 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha = Total 22 members
Correct Answer: (A) 15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha =Total 25 members
63. In which year the Metropolitan Council of Delhi was replaced by a 70 member legislative assembly?
(A) 1990
(B) 1991
(C) 1992
(D) 1993
Correct Answer: (C) 1992
64. The Constitution 73rd Amendment had initiated the process of political empowerment of the Panchayats in the country. Since then, Panchayat elections have been regularly held in all the States and Union Territories in India where Part IX of the Constitution is applicable. Which among the following states has been an exception to this ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Bihar
(C) Kerala
(D) Jharkhand
Correct Answer: (D) Jharkhand
65. Constitution has given powers to the President and Governors regarding nomination of members of Anglo Indian Community (in case the community does not get adequate representation) in the Lok Sabha and State legislative Assembly respectively. Which among the following statement is correct in this regard?
(A) President & Governor can appoint 2 members each
(B) President can appoint 2 members and Governor can appoint 1 member
(C) President & Governor can appoint 1 member each
(D) President can appoint 5 members and Governor can appoint 2 member
Correct Answer: (B) President can appoint 2 members and Governor can appoint 1 member
66. In which year the practice of presenting the railway budget separate from the general budget (or vice versa in true sense) started in India?
(A) 1920
(B) 1924
(C) 1925
(D) 1930
Correct Answer: (B) 1924
67. Bring out the incorrect statement regarding the zero hour?
(A) There is no mention about Zero hour in rules of procedure
(B) The Zero hour usually starts at 12.00 noon
(C) The zero hour questions can be asked without permission
(D) All are correct
Correct Answer: (D) All are correct
68. Which of the following Lok Sabha had the shortest duration?
(A) 9th
(B) 10th
(C) 11th
(D) 12th
Correct Answer: (D) 12th
69. Seat of Uttrakhand High court is located at:
(A) Dehradun
(B) Nainital
(C) Haridwar
(D) Tehri Garhwal
Correct Answer: (B) Nainital
70. Which of the following article was added to Indian Constitution by 25th amendment act , which gives the directive principles in article 39 (b) and ( c) primacy over fundamental rights guaranteed under article 14 & 19 of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Article 31-C
(B) Article 51-A
(C) Article 42-C
(D) Article 32-C
Correct Answer: (A) Article 31-C
71. In which year , the Comptroller & Auditor General of India was relieved from his responsibilities of maintenance of accounts?
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1985
(D) 1971
Correct Answer: (D) 1971
72. The constitution of Jammu & Kashmir was framed by _____?
(A) The same constituent assembly which framed the constitution of India
(B) A special constituent assembly set up by parliament
(C) A special constituent assembly set up by state
(D) None of them
Correct Answer: (C) A special constituent assembly set up by state
73. How many subjects are there in Eleventh schedule which was added by the 73rd amendment Bill (1992) enshrining powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats?
(A) 21
(B) 25
(C) 27
(D) 29
Correct Answer: (D) 29
74. Which of the following article deals with annual Financial Statement (Budget)?
(A) Article 108
(B) Article 110
(C) Article 112
(D) Article 115
Correct Answer: (C) Article 112
75. Article 213 which embodies the ordinance making power of the governor of the state is very similar to that of President embodies in which of the following articles?
(A) Article 111
(B) Article 115
(C) Article 121
(D) Article 123
Correct Answer: (D) Article 123
76. Which article of the constitution of India lays down the procedure for impeachment of the President?
(A) Article 60
(B) Article 61
(C) Article 65
(D) Article 69
Correct Answer: (B) Article 61
77. Who among the following was the main rival candidate against India’s first President Dr. Rajendra Prasad?
(A) NN Das
(B) K T Shah
(C) CH Ram
(D) S Radhakrishnan
Correct Answer: (B) K T Shah
78. Department of Border Management functions under which of the following ministries of Government of India?
(A) Ministry of External Affairs
(B) Ministry of Defense
(C) Union Home Ministry
(D) Ministry of Commerce
Correct Answer: (C) Union Home Ministry
79. Which of the following presidents of India headed the Indian Society of Labour Economics (ISLE) founded in 1957 ?
(A) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(B) V. V. Giri
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) BD Jatti
Correct Answer: (B) V. V. Giri
80. The salaries and allowances of the Governor of Indian state are charged from the____?
(A) Consolidated Fund of the State
(B) Consolidated Fund of India
(C) Public Account of India
(D) Contingency Fund of India
Correct Answer: (A) Consolidated Fund of the State
81. Bring out the only incorrect statement:
(A) The number of members of the constituent assembly was increased after the Mountbatten Plan of 3 June, 1947
(B) On 13 December, 1946, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution that outlined the basics of the constitution
(C) B N Rao was appointed the Constitutional Advisor of the Assembly
(D) First meeting of the Constituent Assembly took place of Dec 9, 1946 with Dr. Sachidanand Sinha as its interim President
Correct Answer: (A) The number of members of the constituent assembly was increased after the Mountbatten Plan of 3 June, 1947
82. “Socialist” was implicit in the constitution, but made explicit by _______?
(A) 38th Amendment Act
(B) 42nd Amendment Act
(C) 44th Amendment Act
(D) 50th Amendment Act
Correct Answer: (B) 42nd Amendment Act
83. Which of the following is the Official language of Nagaland?
(A) Nagamese
(B) Assamese
(C) English
(D) Chang
Correct Answer: (C) English
84. What is the current number of High Courts in India?
(A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 24
(D) 25
Correct Answer: (D) 25
85. Which among the following was first Municipal Corporation of India (Established in 1687)?
(A) Bombay
(B) Allahabad
(C) Kolkata
(D) Madras
Correct Answer: (D) Madras
86. The setting up of which of the following is NOT mentioned in constitution?
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Lok Sabha Secretariat
(C) Election Commission
(D) National Human Rights Commission
Correct Answer: (D) National Human Rights Commission
87. Which among the following constitutional amendment bills is known for establishment of administrative tribunals?
(A) 41st amendment act
(B) 42nd amendment act
(C) 61st amendment act
(D) 69th amendment act
Correct Answer: (B) 42nd amendment act
88. Who among the following appoints a Judge in the High Court of Indian state?
(A) President with advice of Chief Justice of India
(B) President with Advice of Prime Minister
(C) Law Ministry
(D) President with Advice of a collegium of Judges
Correct Answer: (D) President with Advice of a collegium of Judges
89. Consider the following comparisons of systems of government in India and Japan:
- Both the countries have bicameral legislatures
- Both the countries are constitutional monarchies
- Public does not directly choose the prime minister in both the countries
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
(A) Only 1 & 2
(B) Only 2 & 3
(C) Only 1 & 3
(D) 1, 2 & 3
Correct Answer: (C) Only 1 & 3
90. Which among the following was the purpose of setting up the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee in 1956?
(A) Suggesting measures for democratic decentralization
(B) Reporting the working of the Village Panchayats
(C) Suggesting measures for better efficiency in the implementation of the Community Development Projects
(D) Investigating the feasibility of setting up new Panchayat Machinery
Correct Answer: (C) Suggesting measures for better efficiency in the implementation of the Community Development Projects
91. In context with the Armed Forces Tribunal, Consider the following statements:
- Armed Forces Tribunal has been constituted via a Legislation by Parliament of India
- Armed Forces Tribunal has Appellate Jurisdiction in matters related to services
- Armed Forces Tribunal has original Jurisdiction in matters related to Court martial
Which among the above statements is / are correct ?
(A) Only Statement 1 is correct
(B) Only Statement 1 & 2 are correct
(C) Only Statement 1 & 3 are correct
(D) All are correct statements
Correct Answer: (A) Only Statement 1 is correct
Answer Explanation:
The AFC has appellate jurisdiction in matters of Court martial and original jurisdiction in service matters.
92. Which among the following is NOT a salient feature of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act ?
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Three Tier System
(C) State Election Commission
(D) State Planning Commission
Correct Answer: (D) State Planning Commission
93. Who among the following is the first citizen of a city in India?
(A) Mayor
(B) Chairman
(C) Sheriff
(D) Member of Legislative Assembly
Correct Answer: (A) Mayor
94. TRAI (Telecom and Regulatory Authority of India) was established in year ________ by ________
(A) 1997; an Executive Order of Government of India
(B) 2001; an Executive Order of Government of India
(C) 1997; an Act of Parliament
(D) 2001; an Act of Parliament
Correct Answer: (C) 1997; an Act of Parliament
95. When was the EVM (Electronic Voting Machine) first introduced in elections (on experimental basis)?
(A) 1989-90
(B) 1992-93
(C) 1998-99
(D) 2002-03
Correct Answer: (A) 1989-90
96. Right to Education Act, 2009 mandates 25 pc free seats to the poor in which among the following schools of India?
(A) Government Schools only
(B) Government Schools and Government Aided Private Schools only
(C) Government Schools, Government aided Private Schools and Private unaided schools
(D) Private Schools only
Correct Answer: (C) Government Schools, Government aided Private Schools and Private unaided schools
97. Which of the following writs literally means ‘We Command’ ?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo Warranto
(D) Certiorari
Correct Answer: (B) Mandamus
98. The Election Commission of India is not concerned with the elections of /to the:
(A) President
(B) Vice President
(C) Panchayats and Municipalities in the State
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Panchayats and Municipalities in the State
Answer Explanation:
The Election Commission has the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to the Parliament, State legislatures, President and Vice President.
99. Andaman and Nicobar ( Protection of Aboriginal tribes ) Amendment Regulation 2012 has been promulgated under Article 240 of the Constitution, which empowers the President to take such measures for the protection of Aboriginal tribes in the case of Union Territories. This regulation will protect which of the following tribes?
(A) Onges
(B) Shompens
(C) Sentilese
(D) Jarawas
Correct Answer: (D) Jarawas
100. How long a person should have practiced in a High Court to be eligible to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme Court of India?
(A) 10 Years
(B) 12 Years
(C) 15 Years
(D) 20 Years
Correct Answer: (A) 10 Years
